LJ;450917 wrote:Actually it does. They are trying to determine if the definition of "market value" is what an appraiser brings it in as, or if it is what it sells for on the open market. For years "market value" has been determined by appraiser values, but obviously with everything selling under "market value" there seems to be a little flaw in the system dontcha think? What you are missing is that all of your industry terms and standards are top down, not the other way around. If FASAB were to say "ok, the value that banks use for their balance sheets, for loaning money etc is now the sale price not an appraised value" then the whole definition would change. It doesn't matter if it's billy selling a house to steve, or Heartland liquidating a foreclosure.
Market value is not determined by appraisers. Market value is determined by the market and REPORTED by appraisers. There's a big difference in those two statements.
What do you mean by everything is selling under market value? Do you mean bank-held properties or homes owned by the general public?
LJ;450917 wrote:See, I grew up the son of a developer and have dealt with appraisers for years. While they do understand their industry very well (coming up with values for a bank), most seem to have little grasp on the economy as a whole. What is happening is that FASAB, the body who makes these theoretical standards (which is exactly what is being debated here) is threatening the appraisal profession as a whole. If they change the theoretical standard from an appraisers estimate to the actual going price, then the whole definition will change, as will your profession. I am guessing that at some point during the next 20 years, there will be a major push to have real estate valued as an average of open market bids, not based off of sale comps and underlying "value".
Here's why I disagree that the FASAB's definition of market value is not what Con and I are debating. Market value exists in the market and is determined by the market participants collectively. The definition that you say is under scrutiny pertains to the assets that are bank-held properties that have been foreclosed upon. REO or “real estate owned” assets. Is that correct? That’s what you seem to be saying.
If the FASAB changes how banks account for those REOs then that’s fine, but it doesn’t affect market definition of the other 95% (or whatever the % is) of the houses not held by the bank. That‘s the market we are discussing and that will remain the same no matter what the FASAB does to banks internal books.
Also, even of the banks discontinue the use of appraisers on for their REOs, they certainly can’t and won’t stop using appraisers for purchase loans on sales between homeowners and home buyers. That process will remain the same.