gut;1682119 wrote:In the real world cops are assigned where the crime is - how do you suggest, much less prove, that suspicion is racially biased when everyone around is black? There are clearly factors other than race that lead to one person being singled out over the other.
Profiling is selective enforcement based on race (or other factors). You can't profile a homogenous population.
Most real world cops, whether or not they operate in a racially homogenous area, do have frames of reference beyond that (not necessarily professionally).
If one assumes the most sinister of intentions for technically innocuous actions, and if this is based on race, then it would fit the definition of racial profiling, even if that would be applied to most people in the area.
It's also worth noting that there exist few to nil communities that are 100% racially indistinct. I, for example, live in an area where less than 5% of the population is white. However, despite how small the white population is, it does exist all the same. If a cop were to treat myself and my black, Asian, or Latin neighbors differently for the same behavior, then that would constitute race-based profiling, would it not?
Now, as for whether or not it can be logically proven, I don't think there is much, if any, chance of doing so. Since there are no circumstances that are otherwise identical (time, place, etc.), they also leave room for doubt as to the ability to compare two circumstances.
Now, I suppose that you could look at the ratio of arrests and questionings over a period of time and compare it to the racial demographics in the area. However, that still doesn't take into account the forces from outside the community in question, and how they might play a role in the behavior of the people within it, so it's still not an iron-clad solution.
More or less, I'm suggesting that it can certainly happen, though I admit that it might not be provable.