mhs95_06;1490895 wrote:Why did BP get 3rd base when the throw that was trying to double him off 1st base went out of play in back of 1st?
Wondering the same thing
mhs95_06;1490895 wrote:Why did BP get 3rd base when the throw that was trying to double him off 1st base went out of play in back of 1st?
Azubuike24;1490902 wrote:He was already going to 2nd on the throw, gets 3rd when it's out of play. You only get 1 extra base if he reaches 1st on the throw (like would be the case on a throwing error on a batted ball).
That doesn't matter. First base was an already achieved base on a prior play. He's "on his way to 2nd" and then gets 3rd on the OOP call. Kinda hard to explain, but it's different than if on that single play first base was yet to be reached.wildcats20;1490904 wrote:He was sliding back into first.
Azubuike24;1490910 wrote:That doesn't matter. First base was an already achieved base on a prior play. He's "on his way to 2nd" and then gets 3rd on the OOP call. Kinda hard to explain, but it's different than if on that single play first base was yet to be reached.
So, if there is one out and runner on 2nd and a line drive is hit into the LCF gap, the runner thinks it is a hit and runs to home and one into the dugout, but the LF makes a sliding catch and fires the ball to 2nd for the inning ending double play, but the ball gets away, and rolls toward the 1st base dugout and falls in and down the steps. The runner is allowed to score because he gets two bases, correct?Azubuike24;1490910 wrote:That doesn't matter. First base was an already achieved base on a prior play. He's "on his way to 2nd" and then gets 3rd on the OOP call. Kinda hard to explain, but it's different than if on that single play first base was yet to be reached.
Only if the Reds win one of the first two! Even more so, if the Reds somehow could win both of the first two.Azubuike24;1490925 wrote:Bailey vs Wainwright next Wednesday, playoff-like.