posted by superman
I do too.
If anyone can prove they are a descendent of slaves, we will take them to the African country of their choice and drop them off. Leaving them where they would have been if not for the evil white man.
Holy sweet Moses!
posted by Dr Winston O'Boogie
Reperations is a pandora's box. Every group has been wronged at some point in history. The degree of wrong may be different, but what is the minimum threshold deserving of reperations then? I'm an Irishman born in America because my ancestors were forced to flee Ireland due to famine. There could be an argument made that had the English not taken control of Ireland thus not greatly contributed to conditions that caused famine, I would not have had to live in the US - I would have been born in Ireland. So am I owed some sort of reperation from the UK? Do the Mongols owe reperations for Ghengis Kahn? If the US government owes reperations to slave decendents, why too don't the government's of the UK, France, Spain and Portugal - along with all of the African countries whose territories were complicit?
The point is you can chase this forever if you want and never arrive at a reasonable solution. People who live in the US today have great opportunity - more than most anywhere else in the world. It doesn't matter what race or creed. Instead of forever living in the past, let's live in today where no one was enslaved by anyone else, where no one alive was a slave owner, etc.
This seems like a pretty fair take. The English dominated and/or suppressed the sovereignty of Ireland, Scotland, Wales, India, the US, and many African countries in centuries past. To what degree are they owed reparations?
And what about other domineering empires in history? The Romans? Greeks? Persians? Neo-Babylonians? Neo-Assyrians? Should we go further back as well into Mesopotamia?
It does become something of a Pandora's Box if we do, but if we do support actual reparations, we should indeed ask where the lines are. How oppressed is oppressed enough? How recently does it have to have occurred to be relevant? What criteria do we use to define what it means to be oppressed (something more than 'we know what it looks like')? And on how big a scale? Should we consider tribal oppression within the confines of Somalia or Burma/Myanmar, since those were all within the country and among people of the same color and national background? If you fit the general description of the party obligated to pay the reparations, but your ancestry wasn't around for it, are you exempt?