different translations use different words in these versus based upon interpretations of other hebrew words. I m not going to get into the whole argument. I use the king james bible.The words Trinity, triune, Jehovah-Jesus, God-man, are not in the Scriptures. We nowhere find the expression God the Son, but always the Son of God; nowhere God the Holy Spirit, but the spirit of God, or the Holy Spirit. The expressions first person, second person, third person, three persons, are not found. Now if the very words, which are necessary to express the doctrine, are not in the Scriptures, how can we suppose the doctrine itself to be there? If the sacred writers meant to teach this doctrine, how is it possible they should not sometimes have used the words which are now used in regard to it?Series62 wrote:John 10:30; Jesus the son of God said, "I and my Father are one."Gblock wrote: i dont believe jesus is god...i believe he is the son of god
I John 5:7; "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
John 1:1; "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
A word of warning for you, read;
Revelation 22:18-19
I just dont believe that god and jesus are the same person. If jesus was god he wouldnt have been able to die. and that kind of defeats the pupose.....the bible also says that no one has ever seen god. lots of people have seen jesus.....bible also says that he sent his ONLY BEGOTTON SON.....to pay for our sin....
those are just my beliefs i know plenty of people who believe in the trinity i just dont. i dont think you can have it both ways. he is either god or hes not IMO.
i googled this real quick.
1) John 17:3. This is life eternal, that they might know THEE, THE ONLY TRUE GOD and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent. This is the language of our Lord himself in prayer. Now that he was at prayer proves that he could not be God for God never prays. But besides this, he strongly asserts that the Father only is God. It could not be asserted more strongly. It never has been asserted more strongly.
(2) Mark 13:32. But of that day and hour knoweth no man; no, not the angels which are in heaven; NEITHER THE SON; but the Father. This is the language of our Lord. he declares that he does not know the time of that day and hour; that the Father only knows it. Therefore the Father only can be God; for God knows all things.
(3) I Timothy 2:5. There is one God and, one Mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. What can assert more positively than this, that Jesus is not the one God? If not, then there is no Trinity.
(4) I Corinthians 8:6. But to us there is but ONE GOD, THE FATHER, of whom are all things and we in Him; and ONE LORD, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things and we by him. This text is very positive. It declares that Jesus is our Lord; but that the Father only is our God. Can language be devised which shall declare it more positively?
(5) Ephesians 4:5-6. ONE LORD, one faith, one baptism, ONE GOD AND FATHER of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. What can the Apostle mean by this separation of our Lord from the one God and Father of all, if it do not intimate the Father's complete and unrivaled supremacy? What words can speak it, if such words as these mean anything else? Has it ever been asserted, by any Unitarian, more unequivocally?
1) Let us consider, first, the language which is commonly used respecting our Lord Jesus. Is it such as implies that he is the same with Almighty God? Take his testimony respecting himself:
"I came not to do mine own will."
"I can of myself do nothing."
"The Son can do nothing of himself."
"The Father that is in me, he doeth the works."
He calls himself, "he whom the Father hath sanctified and sent."
He says, "I am come in my Father's name."
And after his resurrection he says, "I ascend to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God."