BigYtownRed;749069 wrote:It makes it very ethical. It was ethical for the times & their culture.
There is a distinction between perceived ethics and actual morality. While one can contend that the specificity of morality can change, but it won't fly in the face of itself, unless you believe that morality can somehow do a complete 180-degree turn (or any turn at all, for that matter).
BigYtownRed;749069 wrote:A guest was placed in higher esteem than the family.
Yes, but a culture's perception of social esteem is not equitable to ethics. I'm familiar with the ancient Hebrew culture, but I can also see that much of the culture depicted in the Scriptures is either amoral or even immoral. Just because the Bible says Lot did something does not mean the Bible endorses it.
BigYtownRed;749069 wrote:You look at it in our context of today but if you were raised the exact same way you would practice it the same.
I'm no less looking at it in ancient Semitic terms than you. Culture != morality. He was doing something that was culturally acceptable. Doesn't make it excusable. Sexual immorality was condemned pre-Noahic Covenant. Lot giving his daughters over to men for much the same interaction that caused pre-Noahic struggle between God and man was an immoral thing to do, regardless of cultural pressures.
Not saying I don't sympathize, but I also don't rationalize his actions, either.
BigYtownRed;749069 wrote:Blowing your nose in public in Japan is highly offensive from what I have heard. Is it offensive to us? Not really, although, I was taught not to do it at the dinner table & I don't do it as an adult.
Once again, there needs be no ambiguation between cultural norms and morality. One
might make a case that it would be immoral to know it is offensive and do it anyway, but the action of blowing one's nose in public, in and of itself, is not immoral.
BigYtownRed;749069 wrote:That isn't what Jesus taught when referring to it in the narrative about Lazarus & the Rich man. Both were physically dead & the rich man who was in torment communicated with Abraham to have Lazarus who was not in torment assist him with a simple drink of a drop of water from his fingertip (how terrible was that torment?). Hades has two parts seperated by a great gulf & no one can pass from one to the other.
Jesus never stipulates that the two places on either side of the chasm are both Hades/Sheol. In fact, I would contend that there is credence given in the story to the contrary.
It happened that the beggar died, and that he was carried away by the angels to Abraham's bosom. The rich man also died, and was buried. In Hades, he lifted up his eyes, being in torment, and saw Abraham far off, and Lazarus at his bosom. He cried and said, "Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue! For I am in anguish in this flame."
But Abraham said, "Son, remember that you, in your lifetime, received your good things, and Lazarus, in the same way, bad things. But now here he is comforted and you are in anguish. Besides all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed, that those who want to pass from here to you are not able, and that none may cross over from there to us."
He said, "I ask you therefore, father, that you would send him to my father's house; for I have five brothers, that he may testify to them, so they won't also come into this place of torment."
But Abraham said to him, "They have Moses and the prophets. Let them listen to them."
He said, "No, father Abraham, but if one goes to them from the dead, they will repent."
He said to him, "If they don't listen to Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded if one rises from the dead."
The story makes a dichotomy statement between Hades and "Abraham's bosom," indicating that the two are opposites, and that one does not exist in another. It makes mention of each person's location very specifically. The rich man is said to have been in Hades. Lazarus is said to have been in Abraham's bosom.
Ultimately, this argument is missing the point, though, because in the final focus of the story, he emphasizes that miraculous resurrection was not enough to save the rich man's siblings ... a telling bit of foreshadowing, and the point of the story. Jesus was teaching about how unwilling many are/would be to accept the salvation offered, and he was simply using the concepts readily understood by the Jews of that time to do it. If you look at the progression of afterlife theology amongh Jews during the post-First Temple and Second Temple periods, the reason for the story being told the way it was makes perfect sense.